1. The suffix ‘-aceae’ is universally used in plant taxonomy to designate which taxonomic rank?
Correct Answer: B (Family)
In botanical nomenclature, standard suffixes denote specific taxonomic ranks: ‘-aceae’ for Family (e.g., Solanaceae, Fabaceae), ‘-ales’ for Order (e.g., Polymoniales), and ‘-phyta’ for Division.
In botanical nomenclature, standard suffixes denote specific taxonomic ranks: ‘-aceae’ for Family (e.g., Solanaceae, Fabaceae), ‘-ales’ for Order (e.g., Polymoniales), and ‘-phyta’ for Division.
2. Which of the following autotrophic eubacteria can form dense blooms in polluted water bodies and are surrounded by a gelatinous/mucilaginous sheath?
Correct Answer: B (Cyanobacteria)
Cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial, or filamentous photosynthetic prokaryotes enclosed within mucilaginous sheaths that frequently cause toxic water blooms in nutrient-rich waters.
Cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial, or filamentous photosynthetic prokaryotes enclosed within mucilaginous sheaths that frequently cause toxic water blooms in nutrient-rich waters.
3. Malarial parasites (Plasmodium species) belong to which protozoan group that possesses an infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle?
Correct Answer: D (Sporozoans)
Sporozoans are endoparasitic protozoans lacking specialized locomotory organelles that produce infectious, spore-like developmental stages (sporozoites), as seen in Plasmodium.
Sporozoans are endoparasitic protozoans lacking specialized locomotory organelles that produce infectious, spore-like developmental stages (sporozoites), as seen in Plasmodium.
4. White rust of crucifers (e.g., on mustard leaves) is caused by the parasitic phycomycetous fungus:
Correct Answer: A (Albugo candida)
Albugo candida is an obligate biotrophic phycomycete (oomycete) that causes white blister rust on cruciferous plants like mustard and radish.
Albugo candida is an obligate biotrophic phycomycete (oomycete) that causes white blister rust on cruciferous plants like mustard and radish.
5. In brown algae (Phaeophyceae), the gelatinous, non-sulfated hydrocolloid coating on the outer cellulose cell wall is composed of:
Correct Answer: A (Algin)
Cell walls of Phaeophyceae are composed of an inner cellulose framework and an outer colloidal coating of alginic acid (algin), which prevents desiccation during low tide.
Cell walls of Phaeophyceae are composed of an inner cellulose framework and an outer colloidal coating of alginic acid (algin), which prevents desiccation during low tide.
6. Peat moss (Sphagnum) possesses exceptional water-holding capacity because of the presence of:
Correct Answer: B (Large, dead, reticulate hyaline cells)
Sphagnum leaves contain large, empty, perforated dead hyaline cells with spirally thickened walls capable of absorbing and retaining water up to 20 times their dry weight.
Sphagnum leaves contain large, empty, perforated dead hyaline cells with spirally thickened walls capable of absorbing and retaining water up to 20 times their dry weight.
7. In gymnosperms, pollination drops (secretions emerging at the micropylar canal) function to:
Correct Answer: B (Capture wind-borne pollen grains and retract them)
A sticky pollination drop exudes from the micropyle of receptive gymnosperm ovules to trap airborne pollen grains and draw them into the internal pollen chamber upon drying.
A sticky pollination drop exudes from the micropyle of receptive gymnosperm ovules to trap airborne pollen grains and draw them into the internal pollen chamber upon drying.
8. Which of the following cnidarians is an exclusively free-swimming, umbrella-shaped medusa commonly known as the “Jellyfish”?
Correct Answer: B (Aurelia)
Aurelia (the common jellyfish) belongs to Scyphozoa, existing predominantly as a free-swimming, umbrella-shaped sexual medusa with reduced or absent polyp stages.
Aurelia (the common jellyfish) belongs to Scyphozoa, existing predominantly as a free-swimming, umbrella-shaped sexual medusa with reduced or absent polyp stages.
9. The chitinous exoskeleton in terrestrial arthropods provides mechanical protection and:
Correct Answer: B (Prevents desiccation and provides attachment sites for muscles)
The waxy, waterproof cuticular exoskeleton of arthropods minimizes evaporative moisture loss in terrestrial environments and serves as an internal apodeme framework for muscle attachment.
The waxy, waterproof cuticular exoskeleton of arthropods minimizes evaporative moisture loss in terrestrial environments and serves as an internal apodeme framework for muscle attachment.
10. Marine protochordates like Salpa and Doliolum belong to:
Correct Answer: A (Urochordata)
Urochordata (Tunicata) includes marine protochordates like Ascidia, Salpa, and Doliolum, whose bodies are enveloped in a leathery tunic of tunicin and possess a notochord only in the larval tail.
Urochordata (Tunicata) includes marine protochordates like Ascidia, Salpa, and Doliolum, whose bodies are enveloped in a leathery tunic of tunicin and possess a notochord only in the larval tail.
11. In plants with climbing tendrils, which family characteristically develops coiled, spring-like leaf tendrils from upper leaflets?
Correct Answer: A (Fabaceae)
In the garden pea (Pisum sativum, family Fabaceae), the terminal leaflets of compound leaves are modified into sensitive climbing tendrils. Cucurbita develops stem tendrils from axillary buds.
In the garden pea (Pisum sativum, family Fabaceae), the terminal leaflets of compound leaves are modified into sensitive climbing tendrils. Cucurbita develops stem tendrils from axillary buds.
12. Epipetalous stamens (where stamen filaments are fused to the petals) are characteristically found in:
Correct Answer: B (Brinjal and Petunia)
Epipetalous stamens occur when filaments are adherent to the corolla lobes, a hallmark feature of family Solanaceae (e.g., Brinjal, Tomato, Petunia).
Epipetalous stamens occur when filaments are adherent to the corolla lobes, a hallmark feature of family Solanaceae (e.g., Brinjal, Tomato, Petunia).
13. In sunflower (family Asteraceae / Compositae), the inflorescence is a specialized dense cluster called a:
Correct Answer: B (Capitulum)
The capitulum (head) features a flattened receptacle bearing numerous sessile florets (peripheral sterile/female ray florets and central bisexual disc florets) protected by an involucre of phyllaries.
The capitulum (head) features a flattened receptacle bearing numerous sessile florets (peripheral sterile/female ray florets and central bisexual disc florets) protected by an involucre of phyllaries.
14. In plant anatomy, the term ‘Bark’ refers non-technically to:
Correct Answer: B (All tissues external to the vascular cambium)
Bark is a non-technical term encompassing all structural tissue layers outside the vascular cambial cylinder, comprising secondary phloem and the outer periderm.
Bark is a non-technical term encompassing all structural tissue layers outside the vascular cambial cylinder, comprising secondary phloem and the outer periderm.
15. The specialized sclerenchymatous or parenchymatous layer that surrounds vascular bundles in monocot stems and dicot leaves is the:
Correct Answer: A (Bundle sheath)
Each scattered vascular bundle in a monocot stem is surrounded by a prominent sclerenchymatous bundle sheath. In leaves, a parenchymatous bundle sheath encloses the veins.
Each scattered vascular bundle in a monocot stem is surrounded by a prominent sclerenchymatous bundle sheath. In leaves, a parenchymatous bundle sheath encloses the veins.
16. The specialized connective tissue possessing a hard, non-pliable matrix rich in calcium salts and collagen fibers that provide framework support is:
Correct Answer: B (Bone)
Bone possesses an inorganic, non-pliable mineralized extracellular matrix rich in hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate) and collagen fibers, synthesized by osteocytes located in lacunae.
Bone possesses an inorganic, non-pliable mineralized extracellular matrix rich in hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate) and collagen fibers, synthesized by osteocytes located in lacunae.
17. In the mouth cavity of frogs, teeth are present on the:
Correct Answer: B (Upper jaw and palate roof)
Frogs lack teeth on the lower jaw; small, pointed homodont teeth line the upper jaw (maxillary teeth) and two patches sit on the roof of the buccal cavity (vomerine teeth) to hold prey.
Frogs lack teeth on the lower jaw; small, pointed homodont teeth line the upper jaw (maxillary teeth) and two patches sit on the roof of the buccal cavity (vomerine teeth) to hold prey.
18. The triangular venous chamber (sinus venosus) on the dorsal side of a frog’s heart opens into the:
Correct Answer: A (Right atrium)
The sinus venosus collects deoxygenated systemic blood from the anterior and posterior venae cavae and discharges it directly into the right atrium through the sinu-atrial aperture.
The sinus venosus collects deoxygenated systemic blood from the anterior and posterior venae cavae and discharges it directly into the right atrium through the sinu-atrial aperture.
19. In male frogs, the paired copulatory pads situated on the first digit of the forelimbs:
Correct Answer: B (Help the male grip the female firmly during amplexus)
During the monsoon breeding season, male frogs develop thickened, non-slippery nuptial pads on their inner forelimb digits to clasp the slippery female during mating (amplexus).
During the monsoon breeding season, male frogs develop thickened, non-slippery nuptial pads on their inner forelimb digits to clasp the slippery female during mating (amplexus).
20. The excretory product excreted by adult terrestrial frogs is:
Correct Answer: B (Urea)
Adult frogs eliminate nitrogenous metabolic waste primarily as urea synthesized in the liver and filtered by the kidneys, classifying them as ureotelic animals.
Adult frogs eliminate nitrogenous metabolic waste primarily as urea synthesized in the liver and filtered by the kidneys, classifying them as ureotelic animals.
21. In bacterial cells, surface filamentous structures that do NOT function in motility but attach bacteria to rocks in streams and host tissues are:
Correct Answer: B (Fimbriae)
Fimbriae are bristle-like proteinaceous appendages sprouting from bacterial surfaces that mediate attachment to substrates and host mucosal surfaces without aiding in locomotion.
Fimbriae are bristle-like proteinaceous appendages sprouting from bacterial surfaces that mediate attachment to substrates and host mucosal surfaces without aiding in locomotion.
22. The membrane-bound organelle that participates in synthesizing steroid hormones in gonads and detoxifying drugs and poisons in liver hepatocytes is the:
Correct Answer: B (Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum)
The SER contains cytochrome P450 enzymes that detoxify lipid-soluble drugs and metabolic toxins in the liver, while synthesizing structural phospholipids and steroid hormones in endocrine cells.
The SER contains cytochrome P450 enzymes that detoxify lipid-soluble drugs and metabolic toxins in the liver, while synthesizing structural phospholipids and steroid hormones in endocrine cells.
23. In plant chloroplasts, the chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments are embedded specifically in the:
Correct Answer: B (Thylakoid membranes)
Photosynthetic pigments are anchored within the phospholipid bilayer of thylakoid membranes as light-harvesting complexes associated with Photosystems I and II.
Photosynthetic pigments are anchored within the phospholipid bilayer of thylakoid membranes as light-harvesting complexes associated with Photosystems I and II.
24. The cylindrical core structure of eukaryotic basal bodies and centrioles that nucleates the growth of spindle microtubules is composed of:
Correct Answer: B (Tubulin protein triplets arranged in a 9 + 0 pattern)
Centrioles lack a central microtubule, displaying a 9 + 0 array of nine peripheral triplet microtubules made of tubulin that organize the mitotic spindle.
Centrioles lack a central microtubule, displaying a 9 + 0 array of nine peripheral triplet microtubules made of tubulin that organize the mitotic spindle.
25. Which of the following is an example of a sulfur-containing amino acid essential for building disulfide bridges in protein tertiary structures?
Correct Answer: C (Cysteine)
Cysteine possesses a reactive thiol (-SH) sulfhydryl group that oxidizes with an adjacent cysteine to form covalent disulfide bonds (-S-S-), stabilizing folded protein tertiary conformations.
Cysteine possesses a reactive thiol (-SH) sulfhydryl group that oxidizes with an adjacent cysteine to form covalent disulfide bonds (-S-S-), stabilizing folded protein tertiary conformations.
26. In the tertiary folding of globular proteins, non-polar hydrophobic amino acid side chains (e.g., Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine) are positioned:
Correct Answer: A (Buried inside the interior away from water)
Hydrophobic interactions drive non-polar hydrophobic side chains into the shielded interior core of the protein, while polar and charged residues remain exposed to the aqueous exterior.
Hydrophobic interactions drive non-polar hydrophobic side chains into the shielded interior core of the protein, while polar and charged residues remain exposed to the aqueous exterior.
27. Zinc (Zn2+) acts as an essential inorganic metal cofactor for which catalytic enzyme?
Correct Answer: B (Carbonic anhydrase and Carboxypeptidase)
Zinc (Zn2+) is a coordination cofactor required for the catalytic activity of carbonic anhydrase, carboxypeptidase, and alcohol dehydrogenase.
Zinc (Zn2+) is a coordination cofactor required for the catalytic activity of carbonic anhydrase, carboxypeptidase, and alcohol dehydrogenase.
28. The proteinaceous kinetochores located on centromeres function during cell division to:
Correct Answer: B (Serve as attachment sites for spindle microtubules)
Kinetochores are disc-shaped multi-protein complexes assembled on the primary centromeric constriction of chromosomes where mitotic/meiotic spindle fibers attach to pull chromatids apart.
Kinetochores are disc-shaped multi-protein complexes assembled on the primary centromeric constriction of chromosomes where mitotic/meiotic spindle fibers attach to pull chromatids apart.
29. In human somatic cells undergoing mitosis, the splitting of centromeres and migration of daughter chromosomes toward opposite poles occurs during:
Correct Answer: B (Anaphase)
Mitotic anaphase begins with the simultaneous splitting of centromeres, converting sister chromatids into independent daughter chromosomes that are pulled to opposite spindle poles.
Mitotic anaphase begins with the simultaneous splitting of centromeres, converting sister chromatids into independent daughter chromosomes that are pulled to opposite spindle poles.
30. Interkinesis is the stage between Meiosis I and Meiosis II that:
Correct Answer: B (Is short-lived and lacks an S-phase for DNA replication)
Interkinesis is a brief resting period between Telophase I and Prophase II during which no DNA replication occurs, ensuring that gametes produced by Meiosis II are haploid.
Interkinesis is a brief resting period between Telophase I and Prophase II during which no DNA replication occurs, ensuring that gametes produced by Meiosis II are haploid.
31. The primary photosynthetic electron donor in oxygenic photosynthesis (cyanobacteria, green algae, land plants) is:
Correct Answer: B (Water)
Oxygenic phototrophs use water (H2O) as their electron donor, releasing oxygen as a byproduct via photolysis at Photosystem II. Purple and green sulfur bacteria use H2S and do not evolve O2.
Oxygenic phototrophs use water (H2O) as their electron donor, releasing oxygen as a byproduct via photolysis at Photosystem II. Purple and green sulfur bacteria use H2S and do not evolve O2.
32. In the Calvin cycle, the primary 5-carbon ketose sugar that accepts CO2 is:
Correct Answer: A (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate)
RuBP is the 5-carbon phosphorylated acceptor sugar in the C3 Calvin cycle that combines with CO2 in the presence of RuBisCO to form an unstable 6-carbon intermediate that splits into two 3-PGA molecules.
RuBP is the 5-carbon phosphorylated acceptor sugar in the C3 Calvin cycle that combines with CO2 in the presence of RuBisCO to form an unstable 6-carbon intermediate that splits into two 3-PGA molecules.
33. In C4 plants, the 4-carbon acid transported from mesophyll cells into bundle sheath cells undergoes decarboxylation to regenerate:
Correct Answer: B (Pyruvate and free CO2)
Malic acid is decarboxylated inside bundle sheath chloroplasts by malic enzyme, releasing CO2 for RuBisCO and generating 3-carbon pyruvate, which returns to mesophyll cells to regenerate PEP.
Malic acid is decarboxylated inside bundle sheath chloroplasts by malic enzyme, releasing CO2 for RuBisCO and generating 3-carbon pyruvate, which returns to mesophyll cells to regenerate PEP.
34. Which of the following is a greenhouse crop grown commercially under elevated CO2 concentrations to achieve higher photosynthetic yield (CO2 fertilization effect)?
Correct Answer: B (Tomatoes and Bell peppers)
C3 crops (e.g., tomatoes, bell peppers) are unsaturated at ambient CO2 levels (~400 ppm); enriching greenhouse air with CO2 (up to 450–500 ppm) suppresses photorespiration and boosts fruit yields.
C3 crops (e.g., tomatoes, bell peppers) are unsaturated at ambient CO2 levels (~400 ppm); enriching greenhouse air with CO2 (up to 450–500 ppm) suppresses photorespiration and boosts fruit yields.
35. During glycolysis, what is the net gain of NADH molecules synthesized from ONE molecule of glucose?
Correct Answer: B (2 NADH + 2 H+)
Because 1 glucose yields 2 molecules of PGAL, the oxidation of both triose phosphates by PGAL dehydrogenase reduces 2 NAD+ to generate a net of 2 NADH + 2H+.
Because 1 glucose yields 2 molecules of PGAL, the oxidation of both triose phosphates by PGAL dehydrogenase reduces 2 NAD+ to generate a net of 2 NADH + 2H+.
36. In alcoholic fermentation by yeast, the toxic threshold concentration of accumulated alcohol at which yeast cells undergo self-poisoning and death is:
Correct Answer: C (~13%)
Natural yeast fermentation stops when ethanol concentrations reach ~13%, as alcohol levels beyond this threshold denature yeast membrane proteins and kill the culture. Higher proof beverages require distillation.
Natural yeast fermentation stops when ethanol concentrations reach ~13%, as alcohol levels beyond this threshold denature yeast membrane proteins and kill the culture. Higher proof beverages require distillation.
37. In the mitochondrial Krebs cycle, how many total decarboxylation reactions (releasing CO2) occur per turn of the cycle per Acetyl-CoA?
Correct Answer: B (2 reactions)
In each turn of the citric acid cycle, two successive oxidative decarboxylations release 2 molecules of CO2: isocitrate (6C) → alpha-ketoglutarate (5C), and alpha-ketoglutarate → succinyl-CoA (4C).
In each turn of the citric acid cycle, two successive oxidative decarboxylations release 2 molecules of CO2: isocitrate (6C) → alpha-ketoglutarate (5C), and alpha-ketoglutarate → succinyl-CoA (4C).
38. In the mitochondrial electron transport system, the final step where oxygen (O2) accepts electrons and combines with protons to form metabolic water is catalyzed by:
Correct Answer: D (Complex IV)
Complex IV (Cytochrome c oxidase) contains Cytochromes a and a3 along with copper centers that transfer four electrons to terminal molecular oxygen (O2 + 4H+ + 4e– → 2H2O).
Complex IV (Cytochrome c oxidase) contains Cytochromes a and a3 along with copper centers that transfer four electrons to terminal molecular oxygen (O2 + 4H+ + 4e– → 2H2O).
39. Auxin transport through stem tissues from shoot apices toward the base exhibits:
Correct Answer: A (Polar basipetal transport)
Auxin (IAA) synthesized in young shoot tips and coleoptile apices moves directionally downward toward the base through polar basipetal transport mediated by PIN efflux carrier proteins.
Auxin (IAA) synthesized in young shoot tips and coleoptile apices moves directionally downward toward the base through polar basipetal transport mediated by PIN efflux carrier proteins.
40. The phytohormone known as the “anti-transpirant” because it induces rapid stomatal closure by altering potassium ion fluxes during drought is:
Correct Answer: C (Abscisic acid)
Under water stress, root-synthesized ABA travels to leaves, stimulating guard cell K+ and solute efflux. This causes turgor loss and rapid stomatal pore closure to prevent water deficit.
Under water stress, root-synthesized ABA travels to leaves, stimulating guard cell K+ and solute efflux. This causes turgor loss and rapid stomatal pore closure to prevent water deficit.
41. The volume of air that can be expired forcibly after a normal tidal expiration is the:
Correct Answer: B (Expiratory Reserve Volume)
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is the additional volume of air (1000–1100 mL) a person can exhale forcibly beyond normal tidal expiration using abdominal and internal intercostal muscles.
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is the additional volume of air (1000–1100 mL) a person can exhale forcibly beyond normal tidal expiration using abdominal and internal intercostal muscles.
42. The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is a characteristic:
Correct Answer: B (Sigmoid curve)
The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid due to positive cooperativity: binding of the first oxygen molecule to a heme group alters subunit conformation, increasing the affinity of remaining hemes for O2.
The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid due to positive cooperativity: binding of the first oxygen molecule to a heme group alters subunit conformation, increasing the affinity of remaining hemes for O2.
43. Which granulocytes constitute 2–3% of total leukocytes and protect against multicellular parasitic worm infections while participating in allergic reactions?
Correct Answer: B (Eosinophils)
Eosinophils (2–3% of WBCs) have bilobed nuclei and coarse granules that take up acidic eosin stains; they release major basic protein to kill helminthic parasites and modulate allergic responses.
Eosinophils (2–3% of WBCs) have bilobed nuclei and coarse granules that take up acidic eosin stains; they release major basic protein to kill helminthic parasites and modulate allergic responses.
44. A persistent resting systemic arterial blood pressure reading equal to or exceeding 140/90 mm Hg is diagnosed as:
Correct Answer: B (Hypertension)
Hypertension is diagnosed when sustained blood pressure reaches ≥ 140 mm Hg systolic and/or ≥ 90 mm Hg diastolic, leading to increased risk of stroke, renal failure, and cardiac strain.
Hypertension is diagnosed when sustained blood pressure reaches ≥ 140 mm Hg systolic and/or ≥ 90 mm Hg diastolic, leading to increased risk of stroke, renal failure, and cardiac strain.
45. In the human kidney, obligate reabsorption of 70–80% of filtered electrolytes, water, and nearly 100% of filtered glucose and amino acids occurs in the:
Correct Answer: A (Proximal Convoluted Tubule)
The PCT features simple cuboidal brush-border microvilli and dense mitochondria that drive active transport, reclaiming 70–80% of electrolytes/water and virtually all filtered glucose and amino acids.
The PCT features simple cuboidal brush-border microvilli and dense mitochondria that drive active transport, reclaiming 70–80% of electrolytes/water and virtually all filtered glucose and amino acids.
46. During the cross-bridge cycle of skeletal muscle contraction, detachment of the myosin head from the actin filament requires the binding of:
Correct Answer: B (A new ATP molecule)
Binding of a fresh ATP molecule to the myosin ATPase head breaks the rigor actomyosin complex, releasing the myosin head from actin. Post-mortem ATP depletion causes persistent cross-bridge lock (rigor mortis).
Binding of a fresh ATP molecule to the myosin ATPase head breaks the rigor actomyosin complex, releasing the myosin head from actin. Post-mortem ATP depletion causes persistent cross-bridge lock (rigor mortis).
47. The total number of carpals in both human wrists combined is:
Correct Answer: B (16 bones)
Each human wrist contains 8 carpal bones arranged in two rows (scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate), totalling 16 carpals across both forelimbs.
Each human wrist contains 8 carpal bones arranged in two rows (scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate), totalling 16 carpals across both forelimbs.
48. Inflammation of synovial joints resulting from autoimmune damage or wear of articular cartilage is clinically termed:
Correct Answer: B (Arthritis)
Arthritis is joint inflammation characterized by pain and stiffness. Osteoarthritis involves articular cartilage wear; Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammation of the synovial membrane.
Arthritis is joint inflammation characterized by pain and stiffness. Osteoarthritis involves articular cartilage wear; Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammation of the synovial membrane.
49. The sensory photoreceptor cells in the human retina that contain the purplish-red pigment Rhodopsin (visual purple) and mediate twilight (scotopic) vision are:
Correct Answer: A (Rod cells)
Rods contain rhodopsin (composed of opsin protein and retinal, a vitamin A derivative) and mediate dim-light scotopic vision. Cones contain iodopsins that enable bright-light photopic and color vision.
Rods contain rhodopsin (composed of opsin protein and retinal, a vitamin A derivative) and mediate dim-light scotopic vision. Cones contain iodopsins that enable bright-light photopic and color vision.
50. A simple enlargement of the thyroid gland (Simple Goiter) is caused by:
Correct Answer: B (Dietary deficiency of Iodine)
Iodine is required to synthesize thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). Dietary iodine deficiency lowers circulating thyroid levels, triggering chronic TSH stimulation and thyroid enlargement (endemic goiter).
Iodine is required to synthesize thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). Dietary iodine deficiency lowers circulating thyroid levels, triggering chronic TSH stimulation and thyroid enlargement (endemic goiter).
51. The phenomenon where a diploid cell of the maternal nucellus or integument develops directly into an unreduced embryo without meiosis or fertilization is:
Correct Answer: A (Adventive embryony)
Adventive embryony is a form of apomixis in which diploid maternal cells outside the embryo sac (nucellus or integuments) divide adventitiously to form embryos (e.g., Citrus, Mango).
Adventive embryony is a form of apomixis in which diploid maternal cells outside the embryo sac (nucellus or integuments) divide adventitiously to form embryos (e.g., Citrus, Mango).
52. In an angiosperm seed, the micropyle persists as a tiny pore in the seed coat to facilitate the entry of:
Correct Answer: B (Water and Oxygen during seed germination)
The micropyle remains as a small pore in the mature seed coat, allowing water and dissolved oxygen to imbibe into the embryo to initiate germination.
The micropyle remains as a small pore in the mature seed coat, allowing water and dissolved oxygen to imbibe into the embryo to initiate germination.
53. In flowering plants, which outbreeding mechanism ensures that bisexual flowers avoid self-pollination by shedding pollen before stigmas become receptive?
Correct Answer: A (Protandry)
Protandry occurs when anthers mature and dehisce before the stigma of the same flower is receptive, preventing autogamy and promoting outcrossing (e.g., Sunflower, Salvia).
Protandry occurs when anthers mature and dehisce before the stigma of the same flower is receptive, preventing autogamy and promoting outcrossing (e.g., Sunflower, Salvia).
54. In the human male reproductive system, the paired pea-sized glands located beneath the prostate that secrete alkaline lubricating mucus into the urethra are:
Correct Answer: B (Bulbourethral glands)
Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands secrete a clear, alkaline pre-ejaculatory mucus that neutralizes residual acidic urine in the urethra and lubricates the glans penis during coitus.
Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands secrete a clear, alkaline pre-ejaculatory mucus that neutralizes residual acidic urine in the urethra and lubricates the glans penis during coitus.
55. During human spermatogenesis, how many functional haploid spermatozoa are produced from ONE primary spermatocyte (2n)?
Correct Answer: C (4 functional spermatozoa)
One diploid primary spermatocyte undergoes Meiosis I to form 2 secondary spermatocytes, which complete Meiosis II to yield 4 equal haploid spermatids that differentiate into 4 spermatozoa.
One diploid primary spermatocyte undergoes Meiosis I to form 2 secondary spermatocytes, which complete Meiosis II to yield 4 equal haploid spermatids that differentiate into 4 spermatozoa.
56. The post-ovulatory structural reorganization of granulosa and theca cells under continuous LH stimulation forms the endocrine gland:
Correct Answer: B (Corpus luteum)
Following ovulation, the collapsed Graafian follicle luteinizes under LH stimulation into the yellow endocrine corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to maintain the secretory endometrium.
Following ovulation, the collapsed Graafian follicle luteinizes under LH stimulation into the yellow endocrine corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to maintain the secretory endometrium.
57. Pluripotent embryonic stem cells capable of generating all tissues and organs of the adult body are harvested from the:
Correct Answer: B (Inner Cell Mass of the blastocyst)
Pluripotent embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass (embryoblast) of pre-implantation blastocysts, possessing the developmental capacity to form all somatic cell lineages.
Pluripotent embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass (embryoblast) of pre-implantation blastocysts, possessing the developmental capacity to form all somatic cell lineages.
58. The major polypeptide hormone secreted by the maternal placenta that stimulates maternal lipolysis and alters maternal glucose metabolism to shunt energy to the fetus is:
Correct Answer: B (human Placental Lactogen)
Human placental lactogen (hPL) is secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast during gestation, promoting maternal insulin resistance and lipolysis to spare glucose and amino acids for fetal growth.
Human placental lactogen (hPL) is secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast during gestation, promoting maternal insulin resistance and lipolysis to spare glucose and amino acids for fetal growth.
59. “Diaphragms, Cervical caps, and Vaults” are female barrier contraceptive devices that prevent pregnancy by:
Correct Answer: B (Covering the cervix to physically block sperm entry)
Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are reusable rubber barriers inserted into the vagina over the cervix prior to coitus, physically blocking sperm passage into the upper reproductive tract.
Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are reusable rubber barriers inserted into the vagina over the cervix prior to coitus, physically blocking sperm passage into the upper reproductive tract.
60. In an Assisted Reproductive Technology protocol, In Vitro Fertilization followed by Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) involves:
Correct Answer: B (Direct micro-injection of a single sperm into the ovum)
ICSI is an advanced micromanipulation technique used for severe male subfertility where a micropipette injects a single sperm directly into the ooplasm of an egg in vitro.
ICSI is an advanced micromanipulation technique used for severe male subfertility where a micropipette injects a single sperm directly into the ooplasm of an egg in vitro.
61. In human genetics, if a normal vision man marries a carrier woman (XCXc), what proportion of their DAUGHTERS will be carriers of the red-green colour-blindness allele?
Correct Answer: B (50% of daughters)
Cross: XCY × XCXc → Female progeny receive XC from father and either XC (50% homozygous normal) or Xc (50% heterozygous carriers) from mother.
Cross: XCY × XCXc → Female progeny receive XC from father and either XC (50% homozygous normal) or Xc (50% heterozygous carriers) from mother.
62. The genetic map unit “centimorgan” (cM), measuring distance between linked genes on a chromosome, represents a recombination frequency of:
Correct Answer: C (1% crossover frequency)
Alfred Sturtevant defined one map unit (1 cM or 1 map unit) as equivalent to a 1% frequency of meiotic crossing over / recombination between two linked gene loci.
Alfred Sturtevant defined one map unit (1 cM or 1 map unit) as equivalent to a 1% frequency of meiotic crossing over / recombination between two linked gene loci.
63. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that exemplifies pleiotropy because a single gene mutation results in:
Correct Answer: B (Multiple phenotypic effects including mental retardation, reduced pigmentation, and sparse hair)
A defect in the phenylalanine hydroxylase gene causes phenylalanine accumulation, which impairs brain myelination (mental retardation) and disrupts melanin synthesis (hypopigmentation).
A defect in the phenylalanine hydroxylase gene causes phenylalanine accumulation, which impairs brain myelination (mental retardation) and disrupts melanin synthesis (hypopigmentation).
64. In a double-stranded B-DNA duplex, the distance between two successive base pairs stacked along the central helical axis is:
Correct Answer: B (0.34 nm)
The pitch of the B-DNA double helix is 3.4 nm per turn, with ~10 base pairs per turn; the distance between adjacent stacked base pairs is 3.4 nm / 10 = 0.34 nm (3.4 Å).
The pitch of the B-DNA double helix is 3.4 nm per turn, with ~10 base pairs per turn; the distance between adjacent stacked base pairs is 3.4 nm / 10 = 0.34 nm (3.4 Å).
65. The enzyme that removes the RNA primer and fills the resulting gap with deoxynucleotides during DNA replication in prokaryotes is:
Correct Answer: A (DNA Polymerase I)
DNA Polymerase I uses its 5′-to-3′ exonuclease activity to degrade RNA primers and its 5′-to-3′ polymerase activity to fill the gaps with DNA deoxynucleotides before ligase seals the nicks.
DNA Polymerase I uses its 5′-to-3′ exonuclease activity to degrade RNA primers and its 5′-to-3′ polymerase activity to fill the gaps with DNA deoxynucleotides before ligase seals the nicks.
66. In eukaryotic post-transcriptional processing, “5′-Capping” of hnRNA involves the addition of an unusual nucleotide:
Correct Answer: B (Methyl guanosine triphosphate to the 5′-end)
Capping attaches 7-methylguanosine triphosphate via an unusual 5′-to-5′ triphosphate linkage to the 5′-end of hnRNA, protecting the transcript from exonucleases and facilitating ribosome binding.
Capping attaches 7-methylguanosine triphosphate via an unusual 5′-to-5′ triphosphate linkage to the 5′-end of hnRNA, protecting the transcript from exonucleases and facilitating ribosome binding.
67. The three termination (STOP) codons that do not code for any amino acid and cause the release of the polypeptide chain from the ribosome are:
Correct Answer: B (UAA, UAG, and UGA)
UAA, UAG, and UGA are non-sense/stop codons that do not specify amino acids; they bind release factors that trigger peptidyl-tRNA hydrolysis and terminate translation.
UAA, UAG, and UGA are non-sense/stop codons that do not specify amino acids; they bind release factors that trigger peptidyl-tRNA hydrolysis and terminate translation.
68. The evolution of placental mammals in Australia resembling corresponding marsupials (e.g., Anteater and Numbat, Flying squirrel and Sugar glider) is an example of:
Correct Answer: B (Convergent evolution)
When adaptive radiation occurs in isolated geographical regions, unrelated placental mammals and Australian marsupials independently evolve matching body plans to occupy similar ecological niches.
When adaptive radiation occurs in isolated geographical regions, unrelated placental mammals and Australian marsupials independently evolve matching body plans to occupy similar ecological niches.
69. The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele and genotype frequencies in a Mendelian population remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of:
Correct Answer: A (Gene migration, Genetic drift, Mutation, Recombination, and Natural selection)
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) holds in large, randomly mating populations provided evolutionary forces (mutation, migration, drift, selection, non-random mating) are absent.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) holds in large, randomly mating populations provided evolutionary forces (mutation, migration, drift, selection, non-random mating) are absent.
70. Which hominid ancestor walked bipedally in East African grasslands ~3 to 4 million years ago, had a cranial capacity of ~400–500 cc, and had fossil representatives like “Lucy”?
Correct Answer: C (Australopithecus)
Australopithecus afarensis (exemplified by the fossil “Lucy”) lived in East Africa ~3–4 million years ago, walked erect on two legs, and had an ape-sized cranial capacity of 400–500 cc.
Australopithecus afarensis (exemplified by the fossil “Lucy”) lived in East Africa ~3–4 million years ago, walked erect on two legs, and had an ape-sized cranial capacity of 400–500 cc.
71. In the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax, the rupture of infected human erythrocytes releases toxic granules called:
Correct Answer: B (Haemozoin)
Malarial paroxysms (recurring high fevers and chills every 48–72 hours) are triggered when schizonts burst RBCs, discharging merozoites alongside toxic hemozoin pigment into the blood.
Malarial paroxysms (recurring high fevers and chills every 48–72 hours) are triggered when schizonts burst RBCs, discharging merozoites alongside toxic hemozoin pigment into the blood.
72. An injection of anti-tetanus serum (ATS) or anti-rabies serum provides immediate protection through:
Correct Answer: B (Artificial passive immunity)
Administering preformed antitoxin antibodies directly delivers immediate passive artificial protection to neutralize lethal bacterial toxins or rabies viral particles before active immunity can develop.
Administering preformed antitoxin antibodies directly delivers immediate passive artificial protection to neutralize lethal bacterial toxins or rabies viral particles before active immunity can develop.
73. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) carries an enzyme that copies its single-stranded RNA viral genome into double-stranded DNA, called:
Correct Answer: B (Reverse Transcriptase)
HIV is a retrovirus that uses viral reverse transcriptase to synthesize a complementary DNA (cDNA) copy from its single-stranded RNA template, which integrates into the host lymphocyte genome.
HIV is a retrovirus that uses viral reverse transcriptase to synthesize a complementary DNA (cDNA) copy from its single-stranded RNA template, which integrates into the host lymphocyte genome.
74. The diagnostic technique that uses magnetic fields and non-ionizing radiofrequency radiation to detect pathological and physiological changes in tissues is:
Correct Answer: B (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
MRI uses magnetic fields and non-ionizing radiofrequency waves to safely generate detailed tomographic images of internal tissues, brain lesions, and soft-tissue neoplasms.
MRI uses magnetic fields and non-ionizing radiofrequency waves to safely generate detailed tomographic images of internal tissues, brain lesions, and soft-tissue neoplasms.
75. Cannabinoids extracted from Cannabis sativa (e.g., marijuana, hashish, charas, ganja) interact with cannabinoid receptors located primarily in the brain and affect the:
Correct Answer: B (Cardiovascular system and central nervous system)
Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors in the brain, altering mood and perception while producing marked cardiovascular effects like tachycardia and peripheral vasodilation.
Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors in the brain, altering mood and perception while producing marked cardiovascular effects like tachycardia and peripheral vasodilation.
76. The traditional fermented food “Tempeh” (made from soybeans) and “Tofu” are widely prepared using microbial fermentations involving:
Correct Answer: A (Fungi like Rhizopus oligosporus)
Tempeh is a solid fermented soybean food product produced through solid-state fungal fermentation by Rhizopus species (Phycomycetes).
Tempeh is a solid fermented soybean food product produced through solid-state fungal fermentation by Rhizopus species (Phycomycetes).
77. The industrial bio-catalyst enzyme used in the textile and detergent industries to hydrolyze starch sizing into soluble sugars is:
Correct Answer: B (Amylase)
Microbial amylases (from Bacillus and Aspergillus) hydrolyze alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch, desizing woven textiles and breaking down carbohydrate stains in detergents.
Microbial amylases (from Bacillus and Aspergillus) hydrolyze alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch, desizing woven textiles and breaking down carbohydrate stains in detergents.
78. The anaerobic digestion of domestic and agricultural cattle dung waste by Methanobacterium produces biogas containing predominantly:
Correct Answer: A (Methane 50–70% and Carbon dioxide 30–40%)
Gobar gas (biogas) generated in rural anaerobic digesters consists of 50–70% combustible methane (CH4), 30–40% carbon dioxide (CO2), and traces of H2 and H2S.
Gobar gas (biogas) generated in rural anaerobic digesters consists of 50–70% combustible methane (CH4), 30–40% carbon dioxide (CO2), and traces of H2 and H2S.
79. The biological method of controlling plant diseases and pests using natural predators is preferred over chemical pesticides because biocontrol:
Correct Answer: B (Is species-specific, avoids chemical pollution, and does not harm non-target organisms)
Biological pest management utilizes natural predator-prey relationships, avoiding soil/groundwater contamination, biomagnification, and destruction of beneficial pollinator insects.
Biological pest management utilizes natural predator-prey relationships, avoiding soil/groundwater contamination, biomagnification, and destruction of beneficial pollinator insects.
80. The root nodule-forming symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium of leguminous crops (e.g., Pea, Gram, Alfalfa, Clover) is:
Correct Answer: A (Rhizobium leguminosarum)
Rhizobium establishes a mutualistic symbiosis within root nodules of legumes, expressing nitrogenase to reduce atmospheric dinitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH3) in exchange for photosynthates.
Rhizobium establishes a mutualistic symbiosis within root nodules of legumes, expressing nitrogenase to reduce atmospheric dinitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH3) in exchange for photosynthates.
81. In recombinant cloning vectors, the presence of more than one recognition site for a single restriction endonuclease within the vector will:
Correct Answer: B (Generate several fragments, complicating gene cloning)
A cloning vector should have only a single unique restriction site for any given enzyme; multiple recognition sites lead to vector fragmentation and abortive cloning.
A cloning vector should have only a single unique restriction site for any given enzyme; multiple recognition sites lead to vector fragmentation and abortive cloning.
82. In plasmid pBR322, if foreign DNA is ligated into the PstI site located within the ampicillin-resistance gene (ampR), the recombinant transformants will grow on:
Correct Answer: B (Tetracycline medium, but fail to grow on Ampicillin)
Insertional inactivation at the PstI site disrupts the ampR gene, leaving the recombinant cells tetracycline-resistant (tetR) but ampicillin-sensitive (ampS).
Insertional inactivation at the PstI site disrupts the ampR gene, leaving the recombinant cells tetracycline-resistant (tetR) but ampicillin-sensitive (ampS).
83. To isolate pure genomic DNA from fungal mycelia, the chitin-rich fungal cell wall is enzymatically digested using:
Correct Answer: C (Chitinase)
Fungal cell walls are composed of chitin (a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine) and must be digested with chitinase to release intact protoplasts and genomic DNA.
Fungal cell walls are composed of chitin (a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine) and must be digested with chitinase to release intact protoplasts and genomic DNA.
84. The exponential amplification of target DNA in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) uses thermal cycling where the theoretical number of copies produced after ‘n’ cycles is:
Correct Answer: B (2n)
PCR amplifies DNA exponentially by doubling the target template in each cycle: after ‘n’ cycles, the theoretical yield is 2n copies (e.g., 230 ≈ 109 copies).
PCR amplifies DNA exponentially by doubling the target template in each cycle: after ‘n’ cycles, the theoretical yield is 2n copies (e.g., 230 ≈ 109 copies).
85. The crystalline endotoxins produced by Bacillus thuringiensis do NOT kill the bacterium itself because the toxin:
Correct Answer: B (Exists as an inactive protoxin)
The Bt Cry protein is synthesized as an inactive crystalline protoxin that requires the alkaline pH (pH > 9.0) and specific proteases of the insect midgut to be cleaved into its active lytic form.
The Bt Cry protein is synthesized as an inactive crystalline protoxin that requires the alkaline pH (pH > 9.0) and specific proteases of the insect midgut to be cleaved into its active lytic form.
86. In transgenic crops developed using RNA interference (RNAi), the silencing of specific parasite genes is triggered by the cellular introduction of:
Correct Answer: B (Double-stranded RNA)
RNAi is triggered by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), which is cleaved by Dicer into siRNAs that guide the RISC complex to degrade complementary target mRNAs.
RNAi is triggered by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), which is cleaved by Dicer into siRNAs that guide the RISC complex to degrade complementary target mRNAs.
87. Recombinant human insulin (Humulin) consists of Chain A and Chain B containing respectively:
Correct Answer: B (21 amino acids and 30 amino acids)
Active mature human insulin is a 51-amino acid protein consisting of an A chain (21 amino acids) and a B chain (30 amino acids) held together by two interchain disulfide bonds.
Active mature human insulin is a 51-amino acid protein consisting of an A chain (21 amino acids) and a B chain (30 amino acids) held together by two interchain disulfide bonds.
88. A permanent genetic cure for hereditary Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency can be accomplished if the functional ADA gene is introduced into:
Correct Answer: B (Bone marrow stem cells at early embryonic stages)
Transfusing mature lymphocytes provides only temporary relief due to cell mortality. Introducing the functional ADA gene into bone marrow stem cells during early embryonic development provides a permanent cure.
Transfusing mature lymphocytes provides only temporary relief due to cell mortality. Introducing the functional ADA gene into bone marrow stem cells during early embryonic development provides a permanent cure.
89. In autoradiographic molecular diagnosis, a mutated gene fails to appear on photographic X-ray film because:
Correct Answer: B (Probe does not possess complementarity with the mutated gene)
Probes are designed complementary to the wild-type normal gene sequence; any point mutation or deletion prevents hybridization, leaving the mutated allele unexposed on the photographic film.
Probes are designed complementary to the wild-type normal gene sequence; any point mutation or deletion prevents hybridization, leaving the mutated allele unexposed on the photographic film.
90. Transgenic animal models engineered to study human diseases such as Cancer, Cystic Fibrosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Alzheimer’s disease are predominantly:
Correct Answer: C (Transgenic mice)
More than 95% of all existing genetically modified laboratory animal models are transgenic mice, engineered with human disease genes for pathological study and pre-clinical drug discovery.
More than 95% of all existing genetically modified laboratory animal models are transgenic mice, engineered with human disease genes for pathological study and pre-clinical drug discovery.
91. The relationship between barnacles growing on the back of a migrating baleen whale is an example of:
Correct Answer: A (Commensalism)
Barnacles benefit by hitching rides on moving whales to access plankton-rich feeding waters (+), while the whale derives no benefit and suffers no harm (0).
Barnacles benefit by hitching rides on moving whales to access plankton-rich feeding waters (+), while the whale derives no benefit and suffers no harm (0).
92. If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 8 new plants are added, the birth rate is:
Correct Answer: B (0.4 offspring per lotus per year)
Per capita birth rate = (Number of new individuals added) / (Initial population size) = 8 / 20 = 0.4 offspring per lotus plant per year.
Per capita birth rate = (Number of new individuals added) / (Initial population size) = 8 / 20 = 0.4 offspring per lotus plant per year.
93. Secondary ecological succession occurs much faster than primary succession because:
Correct Answer: B (Pre-existing soil, humus, and propagules are already present)
Unlike primary succession (which begins on sterile bare rock or lava), secondary succession occurs on previously vegetated sites (burned forests, abandoned fields) where developed soil and dormant seeds persist.
Unlike primary succession (which begins on sterile bare rock or lava), secondary succession occurs on previously vegetated sites (burned forests, abandoned fields) where developed soil and dormant seeds persist.
94. The fraction of total incident solar radiation that constitutes Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is:
Correct Answer: B (Less than 50%)
Of the total incident solar radiation reaching Earth, less than 50% falls in the PAR range (400–700 nm), and plants capture only 2–10% of this PAR for photosynthesis.
Of the total incident solar radiation reaching Earth, less than 50% falls in the PAR range (400–700 nm), and plants capture only 2–10% of this PAR for photosynthesis.
95. Lindeman’s 10% energy transfer law between successive trophic levels dictates that:
Correct Answer: B (Only ~10% is converted into new biomass)
Only ~10% of the chemical energy at one trophic level is stored as biomass at the next level, while the remaining 90% is dissipated as metabolic heat and waste, limiting food chains to 4–5 steps.
Only ~10% of the chemical energy at one trophic level is stored as biomass at the next level, while the remaining 90% is dissipated as metabolic heat and waste, limiting food chains to 4–5 steps.
96. The greatest global species diversity among all animal groups is represented by:
Correct Answer: C (Insects)
Insects are the most taxonomically diverse animal group: out of every 10 recorded animals on Earth, 7 are insects (accounting for over 70% of all animal species).
Insects are the most taxonomically diverse animal group: out of every 10 recorded animals on Earth, 7 are insects (accounting for over 70% of all animal species).
97. When large, continuous habitats are broken into small, isolated fragments due to roads, urbanization, or agriculture, the animals most severely affected are:
Correct Answer: B (Large mammals requiring extensive territories and migratory animals)
Habitat fragmentation splits contiguous ecosystems into smaller patches, disrupting large mammals that require extensive territories and interfering with established migratory corridors.
Habitat fragmentation splits contiguous ecosystems into smaller patches, disrupting large mammals that require extensive territories and interfering with established migratory corridors.
98. Which of the following extinct species was a large marine sirenian mammal driven to extinction within 27 years of discovery due to over-hunting for meat and fat?
Correct Answer: C (Steller’s Sea Cow)
Steller’s sea cow was an 8-meter long, docile Arctic marine mammal discovered in 1741 in the Bering Sea and hunted to extinction by 1768 due to excessive exploitation.
Steller’s sea cow was an 8-meter long, docile Arctic marine mammal discovered in 1741 in the Bering Sea and hunted to extinction by 1768 due to excessive exploitation.
99. Which of the following is an In-situ (on-site) biodiversity conservation strategy?
Correct Answer: D (National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Biosphere Reserves, and Sacred Groves)
In-situ conservation protects threatened organisms within their natural ecosystems. Botanical gardens, zoos, and cryopreservation banks are Ex-situ methods.
In-situ conservation protects threatened organisms within their natural ecosystems. Botanical gardens, zoos, and cryopreservation banks are Ex-situ methods.
100. The three global Biodiversity Hotspots that cover exceptionally rich, threatened biological regions in India are:
Correct Answer: A (Western Ghats-Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma, and the Himalayas)
India encompasses three major global biodiversity hotspots (Western Ghats-Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma, and the Himalayas), each characterized by high species endemism and severe habitat threat.
India encompasses three major global biodiversity hotspots (Western Ghats-Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma, and the Himalayas), each characterized by high species endemism and severe habitat threat.