1. The hard outer layer of a pollen grain (exine) is composed of which highly resistant organic substance?
Correct Answer: B (Sporopollenin)
Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant biological materials known. It withstands high temperatures, strong acids, and alkalis, and no known enzyme degrades it.
Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant biological materials known. It withstands high temperatures, strong acids, and alkalis, and no known enzyme degrades it.
2. In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at which developmental stage?
Correct Answer: A (2-celled stage)
In >60% of angiosperms, pollen is shed at the 2-celled stage. In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to yield two male gametes before shedding (3-celled stage).
In >60% of angiosperms, pollen is shed at the 2-celled stage. In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to yield two male gametes before shedding (3-celled stage).
3. Pollen grains of crop species like wheat and rice lose viability within:
Correct Answer: B (30 minutes of release)
In cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes. In members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae, and Solanaceae, viability lasts for months.
In cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes. In members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae, and Solanaceae, viability lasts for months.
4. A typical mature female gametophyte (embryo sac) in angiosperms is:
Correct Answer: B (7-celled and 8-nucleate)
The Polygonum type embryo sac consists of 3 antipodals at the chalazal end, 1 egg cell and 2 synergids (egg apparatus) at the micropylar end, and 1 large central cell containing 2 polar nuclei.
The Polygonum type embryo sac consists of 3 antipodals at the chalazal end, 1 egg cell and 2 synergids (egg apparatus) at the micropylar end, and 1 large central cell containing 2 polar nuclei.
5. What is the specific function of the filiform apparatus present in synergids?
Correct Answer: B (Guiding the entry of the pollen tube into the synergid)
The filiform apparatus consists of cellular finger-like thickenings at the micropylar tip of synergids that chemically guide the pollen tube into the embryo sac.
The filiform apparatus consists of cellular finger-like thickenings at the micropylar tip of synergids that chemically guide the pollen tube into the embryo sac.
6. Flowers that do not open at all and ensure assured seed set even without pollinators are:
Correct Answer: B (Cleistogamous flowers)
Cleistogamous flowers (found in Viola, Oxalis, Commelina) remain closed, making autogamy invariable and ensuring seed set independent of external pollinators.
Cleistogamous flowers (found in Viola, Oxalis, Commelina) remain closed, making autogamy invariable and ensuring seed set independent of external pollinators.
7. Wind-pollinated (anemophilous) flowers typically exhibit:
Correct Answer: B (Light, non-sticky pollen grains and large feathery stigmas)
Anemophilous flowers produce abundant light, dry pollen, well-exposed stamens, large feathery stigmas to trap airborne pollen, and usually have a single ovule per ovary.
Anemophilous flowers produce abundant light, dry pollen, well-exposed stamens, large feathery stigmas to trap airborne pollen, and usually have a single ovule per ovary.
8. Which of the following aquatic plants is pollinated by insects or wind rather than water?
Correct Answer: D (Water hyacinth (Eichhornia) and Water lily)
In water hyacinth and water lily, flowers emerge above water level and are pollinated by insects or wind, unlike submerged pollinated plants like Vallisneria and Zostera.
In water hyacinth and water lily, flowers emerge above water level and are pollinated by insects or wind, unlike submerged pollinated plants like Vallisneria and Zostera.
9. Which of the following outbreeding devices prevents self-pollination by ensuring pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronized?
Correct Answer: A (Dichogamy)
Dichogamy is non-synchronization: either pollen is released before the stigma is receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before pollen release (protogyny).
Dichogamy is non-synchronization: either pollen is released before the stigma is receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before pollen release (protogyny).
10. Double fertilization in angiosperms is the fusion of:
Correct Answer: B (One male gamete with egg cell and the second with two polar nuclei)
Syngamy produces a diploid zygote (2n), while triple fusion produces a triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN, 3n). This double event is unique to angiosperms.
Syngamy produces a diploid zygote (2n), while triple fusion produces a triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN, 3n). This double event is unique to angiosperms.
11. The coconut water from tender coconut represents:
Correct Answer: B (Free-nuclear endosperm)
Coconut water represents free-nuclear endosperm made of thousands of free nuclei, whereas the surrounding white kernel is cellular endosperm.
Coconut water represents free-nuclear endosperm made of thousands of free nuclei, whereas the surrounding white kernel is cellular endosperm.
12. In a monocot embryo (e.g., grass family), the single shield-shaped cotyledon is called:
Correct Answer: C (Scutellum)
The single cotyledon of the monocot embryo situated toward one side of the embryonal axis is called the scutellum.
The single cotyledon of the monocot embryo situated toward one side of the embryonal axis is called the scutellum.
13. Which of the following is a non-albuminous (non-endospermic) seed?
Correct Answer: D (Pea)
Non-albuminous seeds (e.g., pea, gram, bean, groundnut) consume their endosperm completely during embryo development. Castor, wheat, and maize retain endosperm (albuminous).
Non-albuminous seeds (e.g., pea, gram, bean, groundnut) consume their endosperm completely during embryo development. Castor, wheat, and maize retain endosperm (albuminous).
14. Persistent residual nucellus observed in seeds of black pepper and beet is termed:
Correct Answer: B (Perisperm)
In a few species like black pepper and beet, remnants of the nucellus persist in the mature seed as a nutritive tissue called perisperm.
In a few species like black pepper and beet, remnants of the nucellus persist in the mature seed as a nutritive tissue called perisperm.
15. An example of a false fruit where the thalamus contributes to fruit formation is:
Correct Answer: A (Apple and Strawberry)
In false fruits (apple, pear, strawberry, cashew), parts other than the ovary (primarily the fleshy floral thalamus) contribute to the bulk of the fruit.
In false fruits (apple, pear, strawberry, cashew), parts other than the ovary (primarily the fleshy floral thalamus) contribute to the bulk of the fruit.
16. The production of seeds without fertilization is called:
Correct Answer: B (Apomixis)
Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction by producing seeds without undergoing syngamy and meiosis (e.g., Asteraceae and grasses).
Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction by producing seeds without undergoing syngamy and meiosis (e.g., Asteraceae and grasses).
17. Polyembryony commonly observed in Citrus and Mango arises when:
Correct Answer: B (Maternal nucellar cells divide and protrude into the embryo sac)
In Citrus and Mango, diploid nucellar cells push into the embryo sac and develop into multiple embryos, giving rise to polyembryony.
In Citrus and Mango, diploid nucellar cells push into the embryo sac and develop into multiple embryos, giving rise to polyembryony.
18. The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within the scrotum because spermatogenesis requires:
Correct Answer: B (A temperature 2 to 2.5 degrees C lower than internal body temperature)
The scrotum acts as a thermoregulator, maintaining testicular temperature at 2–2.5°C lower than core body temperature, which is essential for viable spermatogenesis.
The scrotum acts as a thermoregulator, maintaining testicular temperature at 2–2.5°C lower than core body temperature, which is essential for viable spermatogenesis.
19. Leydig cells (interstitial cells) present in the interstitial spaces of seminiferous tubules secrete:
Correct Answer: B (Androgens (primarily Testosterone))
Leydig cells synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called androgens when stimulated by Luteinizing Hormone (LH/ICSH) from the anterior pituitary.
Leydig cells synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called androgens when stimulated by Luteinizing Hormone (LH/ICSH) from the anterior pituitary.
20. What is the correct anatomical pathway of sperm transport through the male duct system?
Correct Answer: A (Rete testis -> Vasa efferentia -> Epididymis -> Vas deferens)
Sperm cells leave the seminiferous tubules into the rete testis, travel through vasa efferentia, enter the epididymis for functional maturation/storage, and ascend via the vas deferens.
Sperm cells leave the seminiferous tubules into the rete testis, travel through vasa efferentia, enter the epididymis for functional maturation/storage, and ascend via the vas deferens.
21. Secretions of male accessory reproductive glands (seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral) are rich in:
Correct Answer: B (Fructose, calcium, and specific enzymes)
Seminal plasma produced by male accessory sex glands is rich in fructose (energy source for sperm motility), calcium ions, and clotting/fibrinolytic enzymes.
Seminal plasma produced by male accessory sex glands is rich in fructose (energy source for sperm motility), calcium ions, and clotting/fibrinolytic enzymes.
22. The acrosome of a mature human spermatozoon is derived from which cellular organelle?
Correct Answer: B (Golgi complex)
The acrosome is a cap-like structure derived from the Golgi apparatus. It contains hydrolytic sperm lysins (hyaluronidase, acrosin) needed to penetrate the ovum’s zona pellucida.
The acrosome is a cap-like structure derived from the Golgi apparatus. It contains hydrolytic sperm lysins (hyaluronidase, acrosin) needed to penetrate the ovum’s zona pellucida.
23. During spermatogenesis, the transition from primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes involves:
Correct Answer: B (First meiotic reductional division (Meiosis I))
Diploid primary spermatocytes (2n = 46) complete Meiosis I to produce two equal haploid secondary spermatocytes (n = 23).
Diploid primary spermatocytes (2n = 46) complete Meiosis I to produce two equal haploid secondary spermatocytes (n = 23).
24. Primary oocytes are formed during embryonic development and remain arrested in which meiotic stage until puberty?
Correct Answer: A (Prophase I (Diplotene stage))
Oogonia begin Meiosis I during fetal life and enter a prolonged resting arrest state at the diplotene stage of Prophase I until individual follicles mature after puberty.
Oogonia begin Meiosis I during fetal life and enter a prolonged resting arrest state at the diplotene stage of Prophase I until individual follicles mature after puberty.
25. The fluid-filled antrum cavity is the characteristic structural feature of a:
Correct Answer: C (Tertiary (and mature Graafian) follicle)
The secondary follicle transforms into a tertiary follicle characterized by an antrum (fluid-filled cavity) and organized theca internal/external layers.
The secondary follicle transforms into a tertiary follicle characterized by an antrum (fluid-filled cavity) and organized theca internal/external layers.
26. Ovulation in human females is directly triggered on approximately day 14 of the cycle by:
Correct Answer: B (Rapid secretion of LH reaching its peak (LH surge))
High estrogen levels exert positive feedback, causing a massive surge in Luteinizing Hormone (LH) mid-cycle, inducing rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of the secondary oocyte.
High estrogen levels exert positive feedback, causing a massive surge in Luteinizing Hormone (LH) mid-cycle, inducing rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of the secondary oocyte.
27. After ovulation, the ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into an endocrine structure called:
Correct Answer: B (Corpus luteum)
The remaining follicular cells hypertrophy into the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone to maintain the secretory endometrium for possible pregnancy.
The remaining follicular cells hypertrophy into the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone to maintain the secretory endometrium for possible pregnancy.
28. The secondary oocyte completes its second meiotic division (Meiosis II):
Correct Answer: B (In the fallopian tube at the time of entry of a sperm)
Sperm entry triggers the breakdown of Metaphase Promoting Factor, allowing the secondary oocyte to complete Meiosis II, producing a second polar body and a haploid ootid (ovum).
Sperm entry triggers the breakdown of Metaphase Promoting Factor, allowing the secondary oocyte to complete Meiosis II, producing a second polar body and a haploid ootid (ovum).
29. In humans, fertilization of the ovum typically occurs in which anatomical region of the fallopian tube?
Correct Answer: C (Ampullary region)
Fertilization occurs when sperm and ovum are transported simultaneously to the ampullary region (ampulla) of the fallopian tube.
Fertilization occurs when sperm and ovum are transported simultaneously to the ampullary region (ampulla) of the fallopian tube.
30. Prevention of polyspermy during human fertilization is ensured by changes in the:
Correct Answer: B (Zona pellucida via cortical granule reaction)
When a sperm contacts the zona pellucida, cortical granules release enzymes that alter the zona pellucida membrane, making it impermeable to other sperms.
When a sperm contacts the zona pellucida, cortical granules release enzymes that alter the zona pellucida membrane, making it impermeable to other sperms.
31. The embryo at the 8 to 16 blastomere stage produced by successive cleavage divisions is called a:
Correct Answer: A (Morula)
The solid mulberry-like ball of 8–16 cells is the morula. It continues dividing and transforms into a blastocyst as it moves toward the uterine cavity.
The solid mulberry-like ball of 8–16 cells is the morula. It continues dividing and transforms into a blastocyst as it moves toward the uterine cavity.
32. Which layer of the blastocyst attaches directly to the endometrium during implantation?
Correct Answer: B (Trophoblast)
The outer cell layer called the trophoblast attaches to the uterine endometrium, while the inner cell mass differentiates to give rise to the embryo proper.
The outer cell layer called the trophoblast attaches to the uterine endometrium, while the inner cell mass differentiates to give rise to the embryo proper.
33. Which group of hormones is produced in women exclusively during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B (hCG, hPL, and Relaxin)
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), human Placental Lactogen (hPL), and Relaxin (secreted by the ovary/placenta in late gestation) are produced exclusively during pregnancy.
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), human Placental Lactogen (hPL), and Relaxin (secreted by the ovary/placenta in late gestation) are produced exclusively during pregnancy.
34. The signals for parturition originate from:
Correct Answer: B (Fully developed fetus and the placenta)
Parturition signals originate from the fully developed fetus and placenta, triggering mild uterine contractions called the fetal ejection reflex, which stimulates maternal oxytocin release.
Parturition signals originate from the fully developed fetus and placenta, triggering mild uterine contractions called the fetal ejection reflex, which stimulates maternal oxytocin release.
35. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by mammary glands during the initial days of lactation, is exceptionally rich in which protective antibody?
Correct Answer: C (IgA)
Colostrum contains abundant secretory IgA antibodies that provide essential passive immunity to protect the newborn infant against digestive and respiratory pathogens.
Colostrum contains abundant secretory IgA antibodies that provide essential passive immunity to protect the newborn infant against digestive and respiratory pathogens.
36. India was among the first countries in the world to initiate national family planning action plans in the year:
Correct Answer: A (1951)
India launched national family planning programs in 1951, which were subsequently broadened under the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programs.
India launched national family planning programs in 1951, which were subsequently broadened under the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programs.
37. Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique intended to detect:
Correct Answer: B (Chromosomal abnormalities and genetic metabolic disorders)
Amniocentesis analyzes cultured fetal cells from amniotic fluid to diagnose Down syndrome, hemophilia, sickle-cell anemia, etc. Statutory bans prevent its misuse for female foeticide.
Amniocentesis analyzes cultured fetal cells from amniotic fluid to diagnose Down syndrome, hemophilia, sickle-cell anemia, etc. Statutory bans prevent its misuse for female foeticide.
38. In the periodic abstinence (natural rhythm) method of contraception, coitus is avoided during which days of the menstrual cycle?
Correct Answer: B (Days 10 to 17)
Days 10 to 17 represent the fertile window when ovulation is most likely to occur and the risk of fertilization is highest.
Days 10 to 17 represent the fertile window when ovulation is most likely to occur and the risk of fertilization is highest.
39. Lactational amenorrhea is effective as a natural contraceptive method for a maximum period of up to:
Correct Answer: B (6 months post-partum)
Intense lactation suppresses pituitary gonadotropin secretion (preventing ovulation and menstruation). This method is reliable only up to a maximum period of 6 months following parturition.
Intense lactation suppresses pituitary gonadotropin secretion (preventing ovulation and menstruation). This method is reliable only up to a maximum period of 6 months following parturition.
40. Which of the following is a non-medicated Intrauterine Device (IUD)?
Correct Answer: A (Lippes loop)
Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD. CuT, Cu7, and Multiload 375 are copper-releasing IUDs, while Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone-releasing IUDs.
Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD. CuT, Cu7, and Multiload 375 are copper-releasing IUDs, while Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone-releasing IUDs.
41. How do copper-releasing IUDs (e.g., CuT, Multiload 375) prevent conception?
Correct Answer: B (Releasing Cu ions that suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity)
Cu ions increase phagocytosis of spermatozoa within the uterus and suppress sperm motility as well as viability.
Cu ions increase phagocytosis of spermatozoa within the uterus and suppress sperm motility as well as viability.
42. Hormone-releasing IUDs such as LNG-20 and Progestasert work primarily by:
Correct Answer: B (Making the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperm)
Hormone-releasing IUDs release progestogens that alter the endometrial lining to prevent implantation and thicken cervical mucus to impede sperm entry.
Hormone-releasing IUDs release progestogens that alter the endometrial lining to prevent implantation and thicken cervical mucus to impede sperm entry.
43. The oral contraceptive pill ‘Saheli’ developed by CDRI Lucknow is unique because it is:
Correct Answer: B (A non-steroidal, once-a-week pill with very few side effects)
Saheli contains centchroman (a non-steroidal selective estrogen receptor modulator), taken once a week, and has high contraceptive efficacy with minimal side effects.
Saheli contains centchroman (a non-steroidal selective estrogen receptor modulator), taken once a week, and has high contraceptive efficacy with minimal side effects.
44. Surgical sterilization in human males (vasectomy) involves cutting and tying a small portion of the:
Correct Answer: C (Vas deferens)
In vasectomy, a small part of each vas deferens is removed or tied through an incision on the scrotum, preventing sperms from reaching the ejaculatory fluid.
In vasectomy, a small part of each vas deferens is removed or tied through an incision on the scrotum, preventing sperms from reaching the ejaculatory fluid.
45. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered relatively safe when performed up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: A (First trimester (up to 12 weeks))
MTPs are safest during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks). Second-trimester abortions are significantly more hazardous due to deeper maternal-fetal tissue vascularization.
MTPs are safest during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks). Second-trimester abortions are significantly more hazardous due to deeper maternal-fetal tissue vascularization.
46. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is NOT completely curable even with early detection and treatment?
Correct Answer: D (Genital herpes (along with Hepatitis B and HIV))
Except for Hepatitis B, Genital Herpes, and HIV infections, all other STIs (like syphilis, gonorrhea, trichomoniasis) are completely curable if detected early and treated properly.
Except for Hepatitis B, Genital Herpes, and HIV infections, all other STIs (like syphilis, gonorrhea, trichomoniasis) are completely curable if detected early and treated properly.
47. In an In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) program, transfer of an embryo up to 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube is termed:
Correct Answer: A (ZIFT)
The zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT). Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred directly into the uterus (IUT).
The zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT). Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred directly into the uterus (IUT).
48. Which assisted reproductive technology is recommended for a female who cannot produce viable ova but can provide a suitable internal environment for fertilization and development?
Correct Answer: B (GIFT)
GIFT involves collecting an ovum from a donor and transferring it into the fallopian tube of a female recipient who cannot produce her own ovum.
GIFT involves collecting an ovum from a donor and transferring it into the fallopian tube of a female recipient who cannot produce her own ovum.
49. A specialized laboratory procedure in which a single sperm is microinjected directly into the cytoplasm of an ovum is known as:
Correct Answer: C (ICSI)
ICSI is an advanced ART technique used when sperm motility or count is low, where a single selected spermatozoon is injected directly into the oocyte’s cytoplasm.
ICSI is an advanced ART technique used when sperm motility or count is low, where a single selected spermatozoon is injected directly into the oocyte’s cytoplasm.
50. Artificial Insemination (AI) or Intra-Uterine Insemination (IUI) is specifically indicated in cases of infertility caused by:
Correct Answer: C (Inability of the male partner to inseminate or very low sperm count)
In IUI/AI, semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is introduced into the vagina or directly into the uterus to overcome male infertility factors like oligozoospermia.
In IUI/AI, semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is introduced into the vagina or directly into the uterus to overcome male infertility factors like oligozoospermia.